Swali rahisi,lakini......!

Chamoto gave us the better answer that 9!^99! is the greatest value with only 3 digits but 99!/0 is >>>..>>> than 9!^99!,since 0 is also a single digit number,so the best answer is 99!/0.
 
Chamoto gave us the better answer that 9!^99! is the greatest value with only 3 digits but 99!/0 is >>>..>>> than 9!^99!,since 0 is also a single digit number,so the best answer is 99!/0.

Any number divided by zero is undefined.
 
Upo sawa kabisa!but you have to know why it is undefined.It is bcoz the result is a very very large number to such an extent we can't even manipulate it by using our scientific calculators or powerful computers.
 
No!not yet proved,achana na challenge za infinite values like 99!/0.Let me conclude as follows,9!^(9!^9!) is > than 9!^(99!),proof;forget about the bases b'coz they are the same.let us deal with the exponents only while ignoring the factorial sign(!).(9^9) is 3913338273 times greater than 99.So logically means (9!^9!) is extremely greater than 99!.Therefore;9!^(9!^9!) is>>> than 9!^(99!),i accept further logical challenges.
 
Za jioni mathematicians? Natumai wazima. Anyway kuna hii kitu inaumiza sana akili yangu hapa.
Prove 1=2
yan nimehangaika mpaka nimechoka. Naomba msaada wakuu
 
Za jioni mathematicians? Natumai wazima. Anyway kuna hii kitu inaumiza sana akili yangu hapa.
Prove 1=2
yan nimehangaika mpaka nimechoka. Naomba msaada wakuu

Aaah muheshimiwa!haiwezekani 1=2,haipo duniani hiyo
 
Nasikia kizunguzungu, h'fu kama mnatu 'brain wash' duh! nakumbuka fimbo tu hapa! kha!
 
Za jioni mathematicians? Natumai wazima. Anyway kuna hii kitu inaumiza sana akili yangu hapa.
Prove 1=2
yan nimehangaika mpaka nimechoka. Naomba msaada wakuu

any number power zero = one.
1^0= 1
2^0= 1
therefore 1=2
hence proved.
 
Let a=b,[multiply both sides by b];ab=b^2(minus a^2 both sides);ab-a^2=b^2-a^2[factor ou the LHS using distributive law and use the difference in square for RHS];a(b-a)=(b-a)(b plus a),divide by (b-a) both sides;a=(b plus a),now remember a=b,then;a=(a plus a) au a=2a,divide by for both LHS and RHS;a/a=2a/a,then 1=2.Hence proven!
 

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