Ibrahimovic
Member
- Mar 23, 2011
- 39
- 7
From FIFA laws,two consecutive yellow cards are equivalent to a red card,that is right.From which mathematique rule/principal/law is 1 equivalent to 0?.1 is not equal to 0 and neither equivalent to 0,we are just making fun of maths.We proved wrong that proof telling us 2=1 by saying that,if a=b,then a-b=0.so that proof was not valid.Now we need to prove wrong this fallacy proof that 1=0.coz we know that,1^sin 30=1^cos 60,then sin 30=cos 60.Also 1^1=1^0,then 1=0.I know practically 1 is not equal to 0,now prove this fallacy proof wrong mathematically!
LOL.. And U, from which maths rule/principal/law is 1=0?
Ok, u came again, see these:
1^sin30=1^cos60 it's true coz
2^sin30=2^cos60
3^sin30=3^cos60
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n^sin30=n^cos60 where n is any number. So the equations balances, then sin30=cos60, i agree with that!
On 2nd case,
1^1=1^0 the eqn is true but
1=0 isn't true,
see these,
1^1=2^0 its true but 1=0 isn't true.
1^10=666^0 is true but 10=0 isn't true.
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1^10= n^0 where n is any number. But still10 isn't equal to 0. So inorder for the eqns in 2nd case to be valid mathematically, the exponent to base 1 must be equivalent to zero which is the exponent to base n where n is any number!! So u see where the theory of equivalence can be practise?