I have been doing some basic level reseach on human sexuality in the Bible and I am currently quite confused on the definition of "fornication" translated as "porneia" in the Greek. In Strong's Exhaustive Concordance the definition includes "fornication" which in the English language includes a consentual sexual relationship between two heterosexual individuals outside of marriage. But I went back to the Old Testament Laws found in Leviticus and Exodus and Duet...but I couldn't find any Law that specifically says that two heterosexual couples should not have sex outside of marriage. However, it is entirely possible that Jesus added additional Law in the scripture that included sexual relationships with two heterosexual couples outside of marriage. Only with Jesus could additional law be added to the Bible, but not with any of the apostles for that would be claiming to be God...Since only God can create Law.
In addition, if one looks in the NIV at the word "fornication" then goes to Strong's Concordance and looks up the corresponding (or like English word in the NKJ version) it is translated as, again the Greek word "porneia" and under the definition of "porneia" the English word fornication is used. Isn't this confusing and redundant in nature? It seems like Strong is more biased upon the English version of "fornication" which includes sex outside of marriage...rather than what corresponds with Law found in the Old Testament. Is it possible he is being ambiguous because he isn't sure himself as to whether or not "porneia" includes sex outside of marriage
In addition, if one looks in the NIV at the word "fornication" then goes to Strong's Concordance and looks up the corresponding (or like English word in the NKJ version) it is translated as, again the Greek word "porneia" and under the definition of "porneia" the English word fornication is used. Isn't this confusing and redundant in nature? It seems like Strong is more biased upon the English version of "fornication" which includes sex outside of marriage...rather than what corresponds with Law found in the Old Testament. Is it possible he is being ambiguous because he isn't sure himself as to whether or not "porneia" includes sex outside of marriage