Ibrahimovic
Member
- Mar 23, 2011
- 39
- 7
From FIFA laws,two consecutive yellow cards are equivalent to a red card,that is right.From which mathematique rule/principal/law is 1 equivalent to 0?.1 is not equal to 0 and neither equivalent to 0,we are just making fun of maths.We proved wrong that proof telling us 2=1 by saying that,if a=b,then a-b=0.so that proof was not valid.Now we need to prove wrong this fallacy proof that 1=0.coz we know that,1^sin 30=1^cos 60,then sin 30=cos 60.Also 1^1=1^0,then 1=0.I know practically 1 is not equal to 0,now prove this fallacy proof wrong mathematically!
I'm talking of 1^1=1^0 specifically and not the other equations and remember that i told you that in practice or logically 1 is not equal to 0 and neither equivalent to 0,that is what i said.Now get glued with that equation i.e[1^1=1^0] and try to prove this proof wrong,strictly this equation and not the other twin equations!LOL.. And U, from which maths rule/principal/law is 1=0?
Ok, u came again, see these:
1^sin30=1^cos60 it's true coz
2^sin30=2^cos60
3^sin30=3^cos60
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n^sin30=n^cos60 where n is any number. So the equations balances, then sin30=cos60, i agree with that!
On 2nd case,
1^1=1^0 the eqn is true but
1=0 isn't true,
see these,
1^1=2^0 its true but 1=0 isn't true.
1^10=666^0 is true but 10=0 isn't true.
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1^10= n^0 where n is any number. But still10 isn't equal to 0. So inorder for the eqns in 2nd case to be valid mathematically, the exponent to base 1 must be equivalent to zero which is the exponent to base n where n is any number!! So u see where the theory of equivalence can be practise?
I'm talking of 1^1=1^0 specifically and not the other equations and remember that i told you that in practice or logically 1 is not equal to 0 and neither equivalent to 0,that is what i said.Now get glued with that equation i.e[1^1=1^0] and try to prove this proof wrong,strictly this equation and not the other twin equations!
I'm afraid you don't understand what i want you to do with this equation[1^1=1^0],do the same thing you did with that proof of 2=1,you simply said a-b=0 and the discussion was over!now without using comparable examples,expose the error in this equation as you did in that fallacy proof of 2=1.Remember i want the error to be exposed and not to compare it with other examples.yeah, i'm specifically basing on ur equations and trying to introduce to you the theory of equivalence which u're using it in ur daily life!
U said it, if 1^sin30=1^cos60, then sin30=cos60, i agreed with U with elabolations of other eqns.. It was valid!
U came again, if 1^1=1^0, then 1=0 right?
And i told u, if
1^1=1^0,the eqn is true.
But 1=0 isn't true.. Also if 1^1=1^0, is true, then the exponent 1 is equivalent to exponent 0 is true..
See these in real life.
1kg of sugar=1kg of beans.
But sugar is not equal to beans. Still sugar may be equivalent to beans!
20cows may be equivalen to 1 girl to marry, but 20cows isn't equal to 1 girl!
During buttle trade 2gots was equivalent to 1 bag of maize but 2 goats was'nt equal to 1 bag of mize.
1little of kerosine is equivalent to 1750TSH but kerosine is'nt equal to 1750TSH.. That's mathematics, that's the language of numbers u get it!
hapo sawa?Ronaldo de Lima akiwa Ac Milan alikuwa anavaa jezi na 99 ambayo 9+9=81=8+1=9
If a = 1 and b = 1 therefore i could say that .....
a = b and that
a^2 = ab where
a^2 - b^2 = ab - b^2
(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b) dividing both sides by (a-b) we get:
a+b=b substituting that in equation 1 makes
1+1=1 as in 2=1 ?!!